BEVAE–181
ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES
ABILITY ENHANCEMENT COMPULSORY COURSE (AECC)
Note: All 50 questions are compulsory • Each question carries 2 marks • Choose the correct option
1
Which one of the following is a human-modified environment?
2 MARKS
Explanation: In the text, human-made (human-modified) environments are described as those created and maintained by people—explicitly including cities, industrial spaces and crop fields. A city is given as the clearest example of a totally human-created environment: water is treated and piped in, wastes are collected and processed elsewhere, and resources like food and energy are continually imported and managed. Hence, “Cities” best represents a human-modified environment in the sense used in the book.
2
Which one of the following is not one of the seventeen
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
2 MARKS
Explanation: “Social equity and equality” is not the formal title of any SDG, even though equity is a cross-cutting value reflected in several goals.
3
Which one of the following is not a decomposer?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Ecosystem sections in the text distinguish decomposers (mainly microorganisms like bacteria and fungi, and detritus feeders such as earthworms) that break down dead organic matter and recycle nutrients. Hawk is a carnivorous predator at higher trophic levels, not a decomposer.
4
The extent of the biosphere is about:
2 MARKS
Explanation: The book states that the biosphere—the thin life-supporting layer around the Earth—extends from the ocean floor about 11,000 metres below the surface up to roughly 9,000 metres above mean sea level (the heights of the highest mountains). It also notes life is most abundant near sea level and significant from ~200 m below the ocean surface up to ~6,000 m above sea level. Hence, option (1) matches the described vertical extent.
5
Primary consumers are found at:
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Trophic structure of an ecosystem is divided into various levels. Producers (plants and algae) occupy Trophic Level I, while primary consumers, such as herbivores (e.g., deer, rabbit, cow), feed directly on producers and thus belong to Trophic Level II. Higher levels (III, IV, V) represent secondary, tertiary, and quaternary consumers, respectively.
6
What percent of water is present on the earth’s surface
in the form of fresh water?
in the form of fresh water?
2 MARKS
Explanation: About 71% of the Earth’s surface is covered with water. Out of this total, around 97% is saltwater found in oceans and seas, while only about 3% is fresh water. Most of this fresh water is locked in glaciers and polar ice caps, with a very small fraction available as groundwater or surface water.
7
The detritus food chain begins:
2 MARKS
Explanation: The detritus food chain (DFC) starts with dead organic matter (detritus) such as fallen leaves, dead plants and animals. This organic matter is broken down by decomposers like bacteria, fungi, and detritivores (earthworms). The book explains that this type of food chain is essential for recycling nutrients back into the ecosystem and is common in forest floors, wetlands, and aquatic sediments.
8
Maple, beech and oak are found in:
2 MARKS
Explanation: Maple, beech, and oak trees are typical species of temperate deciduous forests. These forests are found in regions with moderate temperatures and distinct seasons, including a long growing period and a cold winter during which trees shed their leaves. The periodic leaf fall helps conserve water during the dormant season.
9
Unattached organisms that live at the air-water interface are known as:
2 MARKS
Explanation: In the aquatic ecosystems section, the book defines neuston as organisms that live on or near the surface film of water, at the air–water interface. They are distinct from plankton (which drift in water), nekton (free-swimming organisms), and periphyton (those attached to submerged surfaces). Neuston includes small plants, protozoans, and insects that utilize surface tension for movement or feeding.
10
Which one of the following is not a part of lentic ecosystems?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Lentic ecosystems refer to standing or still-water bodies, where there is little or no flow of water. Examples include lakes, ponds, reservoirs, and wetlands. In contrast, rivers and streams represent lotic ecosystems, characterized by flowing water. Therefore, “River” is not a part of lentic ecosystems as per the classification in the text.
11
In which of the following processes does solid water
directly change into water vapour?
directly change into water vapour?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Sublimation is the process by which ice or snow directly changes into water vapour without passing through the liquid phase. It usually occurs under low-pressure and dry conditions, especially in cold regions or high altitudes. Evaporation involves liquid water changing into vapour, but sublimation occurs directly from the solid state.
12
Kul is a traditional irrigation practice in the state of:
2 MARKS
Explanation: Traditional water management systems, Kul is mentioned as a mountainous irrigation channel used in Himachal Pradesh. These small water channels divert water from glaciers and streams to agricultural fields. They are community-managed systems that demonstrate indigenous knowledge and sustainable use of natural resources.
13
Which of the following soils supports the cultivation of Rubber?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Laterite soil is rich in iron and aluminium and forms in tropical regions with heavy rainfall. It is found in states like Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, where conditions of high temperature and humidity favour rubber cultivation. Hence, Laterite soil is best suited for rubber plantations.
14
Which one of the following is not one of the consequences
of excessive irrigation?
of excessive irrigation?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Excessive irrigation can lead to adverse effects such as waterlogging, salinity, and alkalinity in soil, which in turn reduce soil fertility and crop productivity. Continuous over-irrigation raises the groundwater table and deposits salts on the soil surface.
15
Which one of the following is an economic significance of forests?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Forests provide both ecological and economic benefits. Economically, forests are a major source of timber, fuelwood, gums, resins, medicinal plants, and raw materials for industries such as paper, furniture, and pharmaceuticals. Many plants growing in forests contain medicinal properties and are used in the preparation of drugs and herbal medicines.
16
Which one of the following is not a cause of deforestation?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Causes of deforestation include "forest fires," "over-grazing by animals," and "pest attack." However, it describes "scientific and selective cutting of the trees" as a method of forest conservation, not as a cause of deforestation. Therefore, selective cutting is not a cause of deforestation.
17
In which of the following states was Joint Forest
Management (JFM) first successfully implemented?
Management (JFM) first successfully implemented?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Joint Forest Management (JFM) was first successfully implemented in West Bengal. The Arabari model in the Midnapore district became the pioneer example where local communities, in collaboration with the Forest Department, protected degraded forests in exchange for a share of forest produce. The success of this model led to the national adoption of the JFM programme in the early 1990s, involving community participation in forest conservation and management.
18
Which one of the following is the most abundant life
form on the Earth in terms of number?
form on the Earth in terms of number?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Biodiversity and its Conservation unit, insects and microorganisms, make up the largest proportion of living organisms on Earth. Insects alone account for over half of all known species, while microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, and protozoa exist in astronomically large numbers across every habitat. They play essential roles in decomposition, nutrient cycling, and maintaining ecological balance.
19
The Trans-Himalaya biogeographic region is found in:
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Trans-Himalayan region lies to the north of the Great Himalayan range, covering areas such as Ladakh, Lahaul-Spiti, and parts of northern Kashmir. This region is characterized by cold deserts, sparse vegetation, and unique wildlife such as the snow leopard, Tibetan wild ass, and yak. Thus, Ladakh represents the main part of the Trans-Himalaya biogeographic region.
20
Which one of the following biogeographic regions covers
the largest area in India?
the largest area in India?
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Deccan Peninsula is the largest, covering about 42% of the total land area. It extends across major portions of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, and parts of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. The region includes tropical dry and moist deciduous forests and harbours a rich diversity of flora and fauna. Hence, the Deccan Peninsula is the largest biogeographic region in India.
21
Which one of the following is an indirect use value of biodiversity?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Indirect use values are the non-consumptive benefits obtained from biodiversity. These include ecosystem services such as pollination, soil formation, climate regulation, and cultural or aesthetic enjoyment derived from natural beauty and wildlife observation. Aesthetic value refers to the pleasure people derive from the beauty of nature, landscapes, and living organisms, making it an indirect use value of biodiversity.
22
Which one of the following is a conventional source of energy?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Conventional sources are those traditionally used for a long time, such as coal, petroleum, natural gas, hydro power, and biomass. Biomass energy, derived from firewood, agricultural residues, and animal dung, has been used for centuries for cooking and heating, making it a conventional source of energy.
23
The first wave energy project in India was set up at:
2 MARKS
Explanation: Renewable Energy Resources section, India’s first wave energy project was established at Vizhinjam near Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala). The site was chosen due to its strong and consistent wave action. The project aimed to explore the potential of wave power as an alternative renewable energy source along India’s coastline. Hence, Vizhinjam marks the beginning of India’s wave energy development initiatives.
24
India’s maximum commercial energy comes from:
2 MARKS
Explanation: Coal remains the primary source of commercial energy in India. It is the main fuel for thermal power plants, which produce the majority of the country’s electricity. Although renewable and alternative sources like hydropower and atomic energy are growing, coal continues to contribute more than half of India’s total energy consumption due to its abundance and reliability as an energy resource.
25
Which one of the following is not a factor for the sustainable
carrying capacity of the human species?
carrying capacity of the human species?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Factors influencing sustainable carrying capacity include resource availability, knowledge and technology, and economic development that improves resource use efficiency. However, standards of living relate to consumption patterns and comfort levels, not the ecological capacity itself. Hence, it is not a determining factor for sustainable carrying capacity.
26
Insecticides, particularly chlorinated hydrocarbons,
reduced the population level of:
reduced the population level of:
2 MARKS
Explanation: Chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticides, such as DDT, caused a drastic decline in populations of birds of prey, including the Bald Eagle, during the mid-20th century. These chemicals accumulated in food chains, leading to thinning of eggshells, reduced hatching success, and population collapse. This case became a major environmental issue, highlighting the dangers of bioaccumulation and biomagnification in ecosystems.
27
Invasive species that causes skin allergies is:
2 MARKS
Explanation: Congress weed (Parthenium hysterophorus) is an invasive alien species that spreads rapidly in disturbed soils and along roadsides. It is notorious for causing skin allergies, respiratory problems, and dermatitis in humans. The plant competes with native species and reduces biodiversity. Due to its health and ecological impacts, it is identified as one of India’s most dangerous invasive weeds.
28
Which one of the following is an in-situ conservation programme?
2 MARKS
Explanation: In-situ conservation refers to the protection of species within their natural habitats, allowing them to continue their evolutionary processes. Examples include biosphere reserves, national parks, and wildlife sanctuaries. In contrast, ex-situ conservation involves protecting species outside their natural habitats, such as in zoos, botanical gardens, and gene banks. Hence, national parks are a form of in-situ conservation.
29
Which one of the following wetlands is located in Odisha?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon located in the state of Odisha. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India and one of the largest in the world. It supports a rich diversity of migratory birds and aquatic life and has been recognized as a Ramsar Site for its international ecological importance. The other wetlands—Sukhna (Chandigarh), Renuka (Himachal Pradesh), Loktak (Manipur).
30
Which one of the following is a non-point source pollution?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Environmental Pollution distinguishes between point source and non-point source pollution. Point sources are identifiable locations such as pipes, drains, or chimneys that release pollutants directly. Non-point sources, on the other hand, are diffuse and scattered, making them harder to trace. Agricultural run-offs carrying fertilizers, pesticides, and sediments are classic examples of non-point source pollution, as they come from wide areas of land and enter water bodies indirectly.
31
Which one of the following is a major source of ozone as a pollutant?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Ozone at ground level is not emitted directly but formed by photochemical reactions involving sunlight, nitrogen oxides (NOₓ), and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). This process occurs mainly in urban areas with heavy traffic and industrial activities, producing photochemical smog that contains ozone as a secondary pollutant. Hence, the photochemical reaction is the major source of ozone pollution near the Earth’s surface.
32
Which one of the following is a secondary air pollutant?
2 MARKS
Explanation: In the section on Air Pollution, the textbook differentiates between primary and secondary pollutants. Primary pollutants are emitted directly (e.g., SO₂, CO, CO₂). Secondary pollutants are formed in the atmosphere through chemical reactions between primary pollutants. Sulphur trioxide (SO₃) is formed when SO₂ reacts with oxygen → hence secondary pollutant.
33
Which one of the following is a physical agent of water pollution?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Pollutants are classified as physical, chemical, or biological agents. Physical pollutants alter the physical properties of water, such as temperature, colour, and radioactivity. Radioactive substances, released from nuclear plants or mining activities, are considered physical agents of water pollution because they change the water’s physical and radiological characteristics.
34
Which one of the following is not a symptom of toxicity?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Toxicity refers to the harmful effects of pollutants or chemicals on living organisms. Symptoms of toxicity include poisoning, metabolic disorders, and malformations (birth defects) caused by prolonged exposure to toxic substances. However, the release of ionising radiations is not a symptom but rather a cause or source of toxicity.
35
Which one of the following is not a biological treatment of waste?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Biological treatment methods, such as digestion, composting, and lagooning, involve microorganisms decomposing organic matter in waste. Conditioning, on the other hand, is a mechanical or chemical process used to improve the physical properties of waste before disposal (e.g., drying, neutralizing, or compacting). It does not involve biological activity, and hence it is not a biological method of waste treatment.
36
Which of the following is not a part of organic waste?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Organic waste is a material derived from plant or animal sources that can be biodegraded by microorganisms. This includes kitchen scraps, vegetable peels, fruit residues, and garden waste. Plastics, however, are synthetic polymers made from petrochemicals and are non-biodegradable, thus falling under inorganic or non-organic waste. They persist in the environment for hundreds of years and are a major cause of pollution.
37
Which one of the following is not a benefit of recycling waste?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Recycling offers several advantages—it helps conserve natural resources, reduces greenhouse gas emissions, and provides raw materials for industries. However, recycling processes such as sorting, melting, and reprocessing can still generate some pollution, including fumes, residues, and energy consumption. Therefore, the claim that recycling “does not pollute the environment” is incorrect, as no industrial process is completely pollution-free.
38
The Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change
(IPCC) was established in the year:
(IPCC) was established in the year:
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Global Environmental Issues unit states that the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was established in 1988 jointly by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Its purpose is to assess scientific information related to climate change, its impacts, and adaptation and mitigation strategies.
39
Ozone is found in:
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Ozone layer is concentrated in the stratosphere, between 10 and 50 kilometres above the Earth’s surface. This layer absorbs the majority of the Sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation, thereby protecting living organisms.
40
pH of unpolluted rainwater is:
2 MARKS
Explanation: As stated in the Air Pollution and Acid Rain section, pure rainwater is slightly acidic, not neutral, because it naturally contains dissolved carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere. This CO₂ forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which lowers the pH to around 5.6 or 5.7. When pollutants like sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) are added, the acidity increases further, producing acid rain with a pH often below 5. Hence, 5.7 is the typical pH of unpolluted rainwater.
41
Which of the following amendments made the protection
and improvement of the natural br environment a Fundamental Duty?
and improvement of the natural br environment a Fundamental Duty?
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Environmental Legislation and Policies unit clearly mentions that the Forty-second Amendment Act of 1976 added Article 48A and Article 51A(g) to the Indian Constitution. Article 48A (Directive Principles): Directs the State to protect and improve the environment. Article 51A(g) (Fundamental Duty): Makes it the duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
42
The Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movement of
Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal is known as:
Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal is known as:
2 MARKS
Explanation: Basel Convention (adopted in 1989) regulates the transboundary movement and disposal of hazardous wastes. Its main objective is to reduce hazardous waste generation, promote environmentally sound management, and prevent illegal international dumping of such waste, especially from developed to developing nations. It is one of the key international environmental treaties.
43
In Delhi, new vehicles should have a pollution
prevention mechanism comparable to:
prevention mechanism comparable to:
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Environmental Protection Measures section highlights
that India adopted Bharat Stage (BS) emission standards, similar to the Euro norms, to regulate vehicular pollution. As per the latest environmental regulations, from April 2020, all new vehicles sold in India must comply with BS VI standards.
that India adopted Bharat Stage (BS) emission standards, similar to the Euro norms, to regulate vehicular pollution. As per the latest environmental regulations, from April 2020, all new vehicles sold in India must comply with BS VI standards.
44
At the dawn of agriculture (about 8000 B.C.), the world
population was somewhere around:
population was somewhere around:
2 MARKS
Explanation: The human population during the beginning of agriculture, around 8000 B.C., was estimated to be approximately 5 million. This period marked the transition from hunting-gathering to settled agriculture, leading to a stable food supply and gradual population growth.
45
Which one of the following terms is not a part
of the WHO definition of health?
of the WHO definition of health?
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Human Health and Environment section refers to the World Health Organization (WHO) definition of health as “a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.” The term psychological is closely related to mental health, but is not explicitly mentioned in the official WHO definition.
46
Which one of the following is not a geological hazard?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Geological hazards are natural processes arising from movements or changes in the Earth’s crust, including earthquakes, landslides, volcanic eruptions, and related events. While glacier advances are natural climatic or glacial phenomena linked to temperature and precipitation changes, they are not classified as geological hazards.
47
In which year did the Indian coastline experience the most
devastating Tsunami in recorded history?
devastating Tsunami in recorded history?
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Indian Ocean Tsunami of December 26, 2004, was the most devastating tsunami in India’s recorded history. Triggered by a 9.0 magnitude undersea earthquake near Sumatra (Indonesia), the tsunami struck the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala.
48
Which one of the following is not one of the three major views on nature?
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Environmental Ethics and Human–Nature Relationship has three major worldviews on nature: 1. The Western view – focuses on human dominance and exploitation of nature. 2. The Eastern view – emphasizes balance, harmony, and spiritual interconnection. 3. The Indian view – sees nature as sacred, divine, and inseparable from human life. The term “Sinocentric” (China-centered) is not used among the major views discussed.
49
Which one of the following is not a category of environmental equity?
2 MARKS
Explanation: Environmental equity refers to fairness in the distribution of environmental benefits and burdens among different sections of society. The main categories include: Procedural equity, Geographical equity, and Social equity. Psychological is not a recognized category.
50
ENVIS Centre at TERI works in the area of ............
2 MARKS
Explanation: The Environmental Information System (ENVIS) section in the Policies and Practices for Environmental Protection unit explains that ENVIS was established by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to collect, store, and disseminate environmental information through a network of specialized centres. The centre at TERI focuses on Renewable Energy and Environment.